Friday, October 19, 2012

Successful Failures of Language in Titus Andronicus (or How Titus Kicks Poststructuralist Ass)


Shakespeare’s works have come to represent the ideal form of written language; his plays, along with a handful of other canonical early texts have formed the foundation for literary studies for centuries, precisely because of the well-wrought verse.  And yet, Shakespeare was first and foremost a dramatist, not a poet; his plays were written in the popular verse style, but their aim was performance, not silent study.  Language, his texts seem to suggest, is at best a tenuous method for communication, and while supplementary action still falls short of perfect delivery, it at least reminds us of the fickleness of meaning attending a strictly verbal event.  This anxiety of signification permeates his work, making him a proto-poststructuralist hero.  Titus Andronicus (as I will continue to remind you all) has long been banished from the aforementioned canon of literary works, largely because of its crudely constructed verse.  And yet, it is precisely the “substandard” language of the text, I would argue, that most effectively communicates its own failure to communicate, pitting voicelessness against loquaciousness in such a way as to champion the former--Titus hits the mark precisely by missing that mark.
Jacques Derrida’s lecture/essay “Structure, Sign, and Play in the Discourse of the Human Sciences” effectively birthed poststructuralism in its critique of structuralist anthropological methodology.  Concerned by the idea of a fixed center of a structure that is supposedly entertaining “freeplay” of the contained elements, he insists that it just doesn’t add up: “…the center is not the center,” he tells us (279).  What this means, then, is that “…language invaded the universal problematic; that in which, in the absence of a center or origin, everything became discourse…everything became a system where the central signified, the original or transcendental signified is never absolutely present outside a system of differences” (280).  To insist upon a fixed center is to betray a desire for meaning, a meaning that can never be pinned down. 
Shakespeare’s text really elucidates this struggle and desire for meaning.  His characters pitifully cling to meaningless associations (national, romantic, filial, etc.) and the depressing but inevitable conclusion is that the Roman state is so inherently flawed that the violence and betrayal that seeks to upset it is ultimately just another cog in its bloody machine. Repeatedly in the play, characters fight for a linguistic genealogy, a line which begins with some kernel of truth they can harvest to combat an increasingly present sense of subjective morality.  When God utters “I am that I am,” he provides the verbal, ontological root that many seek; Shakespeare, however, substitutes that text with another foundational Western text—Ovid’s Metamorphoses.  When her uncle, Marcus, discovers the raped and mutilated Lavinia, he makes a speech that has gone down in Shakespeare history as one of the worst abuses of language.  The speech includes the necessary allusion to the mythical Philomela, who suffers a similar fate, and carries on for forty-six lines of overly wrought, poorly utilized metaphor.  Famously known as a failure of language, I argue instead that this is the brilliance of its misuse. Marcus’s speech is the verbal equivalent of grasping at straws; facing his ravished niece, his words are at best seen as attempting to heal a wound and at worst as upstaging the very real traumatized girl.  The literally voiceless girl’s presence still trumps the overabundance of verbal signification performed by her uncle.  The overuse of bad language here points to the present absence of Lavinia’s voice, and while it does not actually render it more effectively, it does express the utter impossibility of ever doing so through language.  

3 comments:

  1. Hi Steph! Really fascinating post. I wonder if Derrida might question your assertion that "the Roman state is so inherently flawed that the violence and betrayal that seeks to upset it is ultimately just another cog in its bloody machine" as an instance of the futility of the search for a "fixed center," however. If you see the violence which seems to subvert the system in reality functioning as part of the system, haven't you re-centered the system, so to speak? From seeing the play in terms of a chaotic play of opposed forces, we've moved to a mechanistic view in which the ends of the Roman state center all the action. It may not be a pleasant or optimistic reading of the play, but it still creates meaning by conceiving of the world of the play as a centered structure.

    I like your idea that the "bad" language of the play is an intentional representation by Shakespeare of the inefficacy of any language to construct a stable meaning and our desire nonetheless to do this, especially when confronted with personal tragedy. On this head, I think a further exploration of what makes the language "bad" could take the argument further. For example, you refer to the verse in Titus as "crudely constructed" as opposed to the "well-wrought verse" of the later plays. But while this distinction is wholly a matter of taste, what critics usually point to about the "bad" versification in Titus is the regularity of its meter and frequency of rhyme. It is thought that Shakespeare deliberately abandoned these aspects of his earlier poetic style later on in order to avoid monotony and allow for a wider range of effects. So the problem with the regular verse of Titus (for these critics) is not so much its "crudity" but its artifice: it doesn't allow Shakespeare to individuate the characters as clearly or suit the flow of speech to the occasion. But this works out well for your argument! If it's intentional here (this would be supported if you could show that other popular playwrights of the time did not use such a regular meter, i.e. that Shakespeare was bucking a trend) the limited range could be an intentional representation of the impossibility of representation as well.

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  2. Hi Steph! I really enjoyed the turn towards feminism at the end of your post with your suggestion that Lavinia's voiceless presence trumps Marcus's bad speech. I know it's a bit of a jump, but I'm seeing parallels between your argument and the relationship between poststructuralism and feminism more generally. In many ways, poststructuralism seems to respond to earlier theory that isn't able to articulate/only partially articulates the particular conditions of women (I'm thinking specifically Marxism, which is more interested in the oppression of the working class). I'm seeing this in your post with the way you direct attention to Lavinia's lack of a voice and the inadequacy of Marcus's language, thereby tossing the idea of a fixed center and analyzing the underpinnings of gender-based ideology. I suppose I'm wondering if you can trace in this particular scene the move from structuralism to poststructuralism, and with it a major shift in feminism?

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  3. Kenny--thanks for your thoughtful reply. As far as your first question, about the recentering of the Roman state, I guess I never thought of it that way. I suppose one way to respond to that question is to propose the idea of the Roman state as lacking that fixed center, rather than representing it, itself. In other words, rather than consider the state as one side of an opposition, perhaps we can understand its problematic association with both sides of a different opposition--that of the political body and that of the family body. The opening of Titus pits the family man against the politician/state man right away; there is a contest for the position of the new emperor between his two sons, and Titus kills his own son in a display of loyalty. Rome, though, occupies a symbolic space much larger than simply that of a political power. It has a literary and philosophic history that informs the play, and what constitutes Rome switches so quickly (what with the new emperor and his marrying of a Goth, the supposed enemy of Rome), that I have to imagine Rome is actually a wonderful "scandal" in this way. Just as the incest scandal calls into question the nature/culture opposition, so too does Rome undermine the political/personal binary. The second wave feminists taught us that "the personal is political" and (now moving to Annette's comment) I suppose that is one of the major themes of this play. I think it's interesting to read feminist commentary about the scene I mentioned, to watch as Lavinia occupies one or the other side of victim/perpetrator at differing times in feminist scholarship, but rarely (if ever) does she manage to upset this binary by being allowed to occupy both roles. (This is a large part of my interest in the play). I think informing a reading of this scene with Judith Butler's theory of performativity sends us more in the direction of the move from structuralist reading to poststructuralist reading, but this comment is already too long, and that could be another paper, in and of itself!

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